Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 19.06.2025 04:59
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
What's the most valuable lesson you've learned in life, and how has it impacted your journey so far?
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
There's no rule.
Can you share some of your favorite jokes that are not well-known but always make people laugh?
You'll usually find your answer there.